The Detroit Lions were optimistic about their offense when four-time Pro Bowl center Frank Ragnow decided to come out of retirement. However, on Saturday, the team revealed that Ragnow did not pass his physical and would not be rejoining them.
“Frank Ragnow reported to our facility yesterday and had a normal meeting. Unfortunately, during a routine consultation with our medical team, he didn’t clear the medical exam,” the Lions stated.
According to the team’s findings, Ragnow has suffered a Grade 3 hamstring strain, which will keep him out for the rest of the regular season. Therefore, he will not return to the Lions.
“Frank has always been a team-first guy and a true warrior. He will always be a Lion,” the statement emphasized.
The 29-year-old abruptly announced his retirement from the team in June. He expressed on social media that he had been trying to convince himself he was ready to play, but ultimately, he needed to focus on his health. Ragnow spent his entire seven-year career with the Lions after being drafted in the first round of the 2018 NFL Draft.
In June, Ragnow shared, “I have given everything I have to this team and thought I could contribute more, but the reality is that is not the case. I have to listen to my body. This was one of the hardest decisions of my life.” He added that the last few months had been incredibly tough as he accepted that his football career had come to a close.
After the 2021 season, Lions general manager Brad Holmes awarded Ragnow a four-year, $54 million contract, making him the highest-paid center in the league at that time. He made the Pro Bowl in consecutive seasons after signing the contract, proving to be one of the top centers in the league despite facing injuries during his career.
Ragnow’s potential return would have significantly boosted the 7-5 Lions, who are battling for a wild-card spot following a loss to the Green Bay Packers on Thanksgiving.
